| Official Luthiers Forum! http://www.luthiersforum.com/forum/ |
|
| How much past the near perfect tap tone http://www.luthiersforum.com/forum/viewtopic.php?f=10101&t=24868 |
Page 1 of 1 |
| Author: | RonaldD [ Wed Dec 02, 2009 8:32 pm ] |
| Post subject: | How much past the near perfect tap tone |
Hello, Ronald again I am not exactly new having participated in a few topics last year. But was without a computer all summer and fall. However I am back. Something that I always pondered about. When you thin down a given top and you reach the point that gives near perfect tap tone ( subjective ) and it vibrates quite readily, how much past that point do you thin it down so that when the braces are thinned you will arrive back at the same point you had reach before the bracing. How can you tell. Would the procedure be the same for both back and top. Classical and steel string? Ronald Denis |
|
| Author: | Michael Lloyd [ Thu Dec 03, 2009 1:35 pm ] |
| Post subject: | Re: How much past the near perfect tap tone |
I generally thin my tops and backs to 2mm and only pay attention to the flex of both once thinned to approximately 2.3mm. With all wood not being equal I will thin until I’m happy with the flex of the wood in my hands. I only listen to the tap tones once I’ve braced. I can’t describe the tap tone as it’s just the sound I like. Generally all my bracing will start out the same. I glue on the bracing then carve until I’m happy with both flex and tone. However, I mostly rely on the flex and use this process for all my builds including violins. Though I truly appreciated the scientific principles that I’ve heard here on the forum, over the years I have learned to rely on my sense of touch and feel when it comes to working with wood, a habit not easily broken. |
|
| Page 1 of 1 | All times are UTC - 5 hours |
| Powered by phpBB® Forum Software © phpBB Group http://www.phpbb.com/ |
|